mitt problem i matte1
Posted: 23/11-2011 00:00
Ok her er mitt problem i matte1. Jeg har mast mye om dette men tenkte jeg bare kunne presentere det så ryddig jeg kunne allikevel som en siste forklaring. (a) som er forklart i I klarer jeg ikke å bevise (det er et bevis fra pensum i matteboka for matte1) siden logregelen som beviser den ikke er bevist i matte1 boka så vidt jeg kan se og da begynte problemet når jeg tok inn et log bevis utenfor pensum i forsøk på å bevise (a). Dette forsøket er skrevet under på engelsk. Eksamen er 21. desember så en løsning en hver dag før hadde vært oppklarende. Er det lov å bruke forklaringer utenfor pensum på eksamen som for eksempel hvis jeg skulle finne en alternativ forklaring for (a) nedenfor som går opp? Siden det tar så laaaang tid for meg å forklare det har jeg kopiert forklaringen min på engelsk fra et annet forum. Her er problemet:
Ok I will try to explain it as clear as possible:)
Purpose:
Prove that
[tex](e^x)^y=e^{xy}[/tex] (a)
See my first link for a way to show (a)
First link:
http://bildr.no/view/1031000 I
As I said:
the problem in the first link is to prove that
[tex](a^y)^{\frac{1}{C}}=a^{\frac{y}{C}}[/tex]
which is not understandable for y=1.23 and C=3.12 for example how could one say that
[tex](a^{1.23})^{\frac{1}{3.12}}=a^{\frac{1.23}{3.12}}=a^{\frac{41}{104}}[/tex]
So I tried another way:
Here in link two:
http://bildr.no/view/1031585 II
Proof of chain rule is proved by linearization shown in this link uploaded on scribd.com:
http://www.scribd.com/doc/73314666/Proo ... sh-Ver-PDF
Then I have to prove
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}e^x=e^x[/tex]
First I would find the derivative of lnx because of inverse relationship (this way is how it is described in my book)
http://bildr.no/view/946470
Then I use that to find the derivative of [tex]\frac{d}{dx}e^x=e^x[/tex]:
http://bildr.no/view/1026637
So it is the problem with how to differentiate polynomials in link two (II) that I can't prove here
So I tried to prove how to differentiate polynomials another way and I found out it could be proved by binomial theorem. So I wanted to prove binomial theorem for all real numbers without using rule for differentiating a polynomial. Is that possible?
Is this clear formulation? If it is not I don't know where I am not being clear
Ok I will try to explain it as clear as possible:)
Purpose:
Prove that
[tex](e^x)^y=e^{xy}[/tex] (a)
See my first link for a way to show (a)
First link:
http://bildr.no/view/1031000 I
As I said:
the problem in the first link is to prove that
[tex](a^y)^{\frac{1}{C}}=a^{\frac{y}{C}}[/tex]
which is not understandable for y=1.23 and C=3.12 for example how could one say that
[tex](a^{1.23})^{\frac{1}{3.12}}=a^{\frac{1.23}{3.12}}=a^{\frac{41}{104}}[/tex]
So I tried another way:
Here in link two:
http://bildr.no/view/1031585 II
Proof of chain rule is proved by linearization shown in this link uploaded on scribd.com:
http://www.scribd.com/doc/73314666/Proo ... sh-Ver-PDF
Then I have to prove
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}e^x=e^x[/tex]
First I would find the derivative of lnx because of inverse relationship (this way is how it is described in my book)
http://bildr.no/view/946470
Then I use that to find the derivative of [tex]\frac{d}{dx}e^x=e^x[/tex]:
http://bildr.no/view/1026637
So it is the problem with how to differentiate polynomials in link two (II) that I can't prove here
So I tried to prove how to differentiate polynomials another way and I found out it could be proved by binomial theorem. So I wanted to prove binomial theorem for all real numbers without using rule for differentiating a polynomial. Is that possible?
Is this clear formulation? If it is not I don't know where I am not being clear
